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Description
I have a case that doesn't produce the desired output: a transfer out of an account, in-kind. This gets categorized as an ASSET_OTHERASSET. I'm not sure I understand the reasoning for why this category cashflows out the cost basis of the other asset. Shouldn't it be outflowing the market value instead?
More generally, in-kind transfers (in or out) don't seem to work correctly for this reason. They only work if both source and target accounts are considered together in a group.
Source:
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option "operating_currency" "USD"
plugin "beancount.plugins.implicit_prices"
2005-01-01 commodity USD
2005-01-01 commodity HOOL
2000-01-01 open Assets:Brokerage:USD
2000-01-01 open Assets:Brokerage:HOOL "STRICT"
2000-01-01 open Assets:Zero-Sum-Accounts:Transfers "STRICT"
2020-01-01 * "Buy"
Assets:Brokerage:HOOL 1000 HOOL {1 USD}
Assets:Brokerage:USD
2020-10-01 price HOOL 1.1 USD
2020-10-02 * "Transfer out, in kind"
Assets:Brokerage:HOOL -1000 HOOL {1 USD}
Assets:Zero-Sum-Accounts:Transfers 1000 HOOL {1 USD}
Config:
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investments {
investment {
currency: "HOOL"
asset_account: "Assets:Brokerage:HOOL"
cash_accounts: "Assets:Brokerage:USD"
dividend_accounts: "Income:Dividends:Brokerage:HOOL"
}
}
groups {
group {
name: "currency.HOOL"
investment: "Assets:Brokerage:HOOL"
}
}
Results:
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Desired (meaningful) output: 12% CAGR
Actual output: 0.00% (since the cashflow is -1000 for the buy, and +1000 for the transfer).
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